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1. What type of joint is the hip joint?
→ Synovial ball-and-socket joint.
2. What is the strongest ligament of the hip?
→ Iliofemoral ligament (Y-shaped ligament of Bigelow).
3. What prevents hyperextension at the hip?
→ Iliofemoral ligament.
4. Which artery supplies the head of the femur in adults?
→ Medial circumflex femoral artery (via retinacular branches).
5. Which nerve supplies the hip joint?
→ Femoral, obturator, superior gluteal, and nerve to quadratus femoris.
6. What is the function of the ligament of the head of femur?
→ Carries a small artery from the obturator artery; provides blood supply in children.
7. Why is posterior dislocation of hip common?
→ The posterior capsule is weak and thin, unlike the anterior capsule.
8. What causes avascular necrosis of the femoral head?
→ Damage to the retinacular branches of the medial circumflex femoral artery.
9. What is coxa vara?
→ Decreased neck-shaft angle (<125°).
10. What is coxa valga?
→ Increased neck-shaft angle (>135°).
11. What type of joint is the knee?
→ Synovial condylar (modified hinge) joint.
12. Which bones form the knee joint?
→ Femur, tibia, and patella.
13. What is the function of the patella?
→ Increases the leverage of quadriceps femoris and protects the knee.
14. Which ligament prevents forward displacement of tibia?
→ Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).
15. Which ligament prevents backward displacement of tibia?
→ Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL).
16. Which meniscus is more frequently injured and why?
→ Medial meniscus — attached to MCL, less mobile.
17. What is the “unhappy triad”?
→ Injury to ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus.
18. What is the function of popliteus?
→ Unlocks the knee by laterally rotating femur on tibia.
19. What is the locking mechanism of the knee?
→ Medial rotation of femur during terminal extension.
20. What is the blood supply of the knee joint?
→ Genicular anastomosis around the joint.
21. What is Housemaid’s knee?
→ Prepatellar bursitis.
22. What is Clergyman’s knee?
→ Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursitis.
23. What type of joint is the ankle?
→ Synovial hinge joint.
24. What movements occur at the ankle?
→ Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion.
25. What is the axis of movement of the ankle joint?
→ Transverse line joining tips of malleoli.
26. Which position is the ankle joint most stable in?
→ Dorsiflexion — the talus fits tightly into the tibiofibular mortise.
27. Which ligament prevents over-eversion?
→ Deltoid (medial) ligament.
28. Which ligament prevents over-inversion?
→ Lateral ligament (anterior talofibular, calcaneofibular, posterior talofibular).
29. What is Pott’s fracture?
→ Fracture of both malleoli due to twisting injury (external rotation and eversion).
30. What type of joint is the superior tibiofibular joint?
→ Plane synovial joint.
31. What type of joint is the inferior tibiofibular joint?
→ Syndesmosis (fibrous joint).
32. What is the main stabilizing ligament of the inferior tibiofibular joint?
→ Interosseous tibiofibular ligament.
33. What is a high ankle sprain?
→ Injury to the inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis.
34. What type of joint is the subtalar (talocalcanean) joint?
→ Plane synovial joint.
35. What type of joint is the talocalcaneonavicular joint?
→ Modified ball-and-socket joint.
36. What type of joint is the calcaneocuboid joint?
→ Saddle-type synovial joint.
37. What is the spring ligament?
→ Plantar calcaneonavicular ligament — supports head of talus and medial arch.
38. What movements occur at subtalar and midtarsal joints?
→ Inversion and eversion.
39. Which muscles cause inversion?
→ Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior.
40. Which muscles cause eversion?
→ Peroneus longus, brevis, and tertius.
41. What forms the transverse tarsal (midtarsal) joint?
→ Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints.
42. What type of joints are the metatarsophalangeal joints?
→ Condyloid synovial joints.
43. What type of joints are the interphalangeal joints?
→ Hinge synovial joints.
44. What maintains the medial longitudinal arch?
→ Spring ligament, tibialis posterior, plantar aponeurosis.
45. What maintains the lateral longitudinal arch?
→ Long and short plantar ligaments, peroneus longus and brevis.
46. What maintains the transverse arch?
→ Peroneus longus tendon and adductor hallucis (transverse head).
47. What is pes planus?
→ Flat foot due to collapse of medial arch.
48. What is pes cavus?
→ High-arched foot due to exaggerated longitudinal arch.
49. What is talipes equinovarus?
→ Clubfoot — plantarflexed, inverted, and adducted foot.
50. What is the stance phase of gait?
→ Period when foot is in contact with ground (≈60% of cycle).
51. What is the swing phase?
→ Period when foot is off the ground (≈40% of cycle).
52. What is Trendelenburg gait?
→ Pelvic drop on opposite side due to superior gluteal nerve palsy.
53. What is foot drop?
→ Inability to dorsiflex due to deep peroneal nerve lesion.
54. What is the key muscle for unlocking the knee?
→ Popliteus.
55. Which joint contributes most to inversion and eversion?
→ Subtalar joint.
56. What law describes joint innervation by nerves of acting muscles?
→ Hilton’s Law.
57. Which joint is responsible for dorsiflexion and plantar flexion?
→ Ankle joint.
58. Which joint contributes to rotation of tibia during flexion?
→ Knee joint.
59. What is the functional importance of locking of knee?
→ Provides stability in standing with minimal muscular effort.
60. Which muscle is called “the key of the knee”?
→ Popliteus muscle.
ACL rupture: Anterior drawer test positive.
PCL rupture: Posterior drawer test positive.
Deltoid ligament injury: Over-eversion strain.
Lateral ligament injury: Over-inversion strain.
Plantar fasciitis: Heel pain on first step.
Hallux valgus: Lateral deviation of great toe with bunion.
Housemaid’s knee: Prepatellar bursitis.
Baker’s cyst: Posterior swelling in popliteal fossa.
Flat foot: Collapsed medial arch.
1. The hip joint is what type of synovial joint?
A. Hinge
B. Pivot
C. Ball-and-socket
D. Saddle
→ Answer: C — permits multiaxial movements.
2. The strongest ligament in the human body is:
A. Ligamentum teres
B. Iliofemoral ligament
C. Ischiofemoral ligament
D. Pubofemoral ligament
→ Answer: B — prevents hyperextension.
3. Posterior dislocation of hip joint damages which nerve?
A. Obturator
B. Femoral
C. Sciatic
D. Superior gluteal
→ Answer: C — sciatic nerve lies behind the hip joint.
4. Avascular necrosis of femoral head occurs due to injury of:
A. Obturator artery
B. Medial circumflex femoral artery
C. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
D. Inferior gluteal artery
→ Answer: B — main arterial supply via retinacular branches.
5. Which movement is limited by ischiofemoral ligament?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Lateral rotation
D. Abduction
→ Answer: C — it tightens during medial rotation.
6. The type of joint at the knee is:
A. Simple hinge
B. Condylar (modified hinge)
C. Ball-and-socket
D. Saddle
→ Answer: B.
7. The anterior cruciate ligament prevents:
A. Backward displacement of tibia
B. Forward displacement of tibia
C. Backward displacement of femur
D. Rotation of tibia
→ Answer: B.
8. The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to:
A. Lateral femoral condyle
B. Medial femoral condyle
C. Tibial tuberosity
D. Patella
→ Answer: B.
9. The medial meniscus is attached to which ligament?
A. Fibular collateral ligament
B. Tibial collateral ligament
C. Posterior cruciate ligament
D. Transverse ligament
→ Answer: B.
10. Which muscle unlocks the knee joint?
A. Gastrocnemius
B. Biceps femoris
C. Popliteus
D. Sartorius
→ Answer: C — by lateral rotation of femur on tibia.
11. Which structure is intracapsular but extrasynovial?
A. Menisci
B. Cruciate ligaments
C. Collateral ligaments
D. Patellar ligament
→ Answer: B.
12. The “unhappy triad” involves injury to:
A. ACL, MCL, and lateral meniscus
B. PCL, MCL, and medial meniscus
C. ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus
D. ACL, LCL, and medial meniscus
→ Answer: C.
13. Housemaid’s knee involves which bursa?
A. Prepatellar
B. Suprapatellar
C. Subcutaneous infrapatellar
D. Deep infrapatellar
→ Answer: A.
14. The key muscle for knee stability during walking is:
A. Vastus medialis
B. Sartorius
C. Biceps femoris
D. Popliteus
→ Answer: A — prevents patellar maltracking.
15. Type of ankle joint:
A. Ball-and-socket
B. Hinge
C. Saddle
D. Plane
→ Answer: B.
16. The ankle joint is most stable in:
A. Plantar flexion
B. Dorsiflexion
C. Mid-position
D. Pronation
→ Answer: B — anterior part of talus is wider and fits tightly.
17. Deltoid ligament prevents:
A. Inversion
B. Eversion
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Rotation
→ Answer: B.
18. Most commonly injured ligament in ankle sprain:
A. Posterior talofibular
B. Calcaneofibular
C. Anterior talofibular
D. Deltoid
→ Answer: C.
19. Pott’s fracture involves:
A. Fracture of fibular neck
B. Bimalleolar fracture
C. Calcaneal fracture
D. Navicular fracture
→ Answer: B — from eversion injury.
20. The subtalar joint is which type?
A. Hinge
B. Plane synovial
C. Saddle
D. Pivot
→ Answer: B.
21. The talocalcaneonavicular joint is:
A. Plane
B. Hinge
C. Modified ball-and-socket
D. Condylar
→ Answer: C.
22. The spring ligament connects:
A. Talus to calcaneus
B. Calcaneus to navicular
C. Navicular to cuboid
D. Talus to navicular
→ Answer: B — plantar calcaneonavicular ligament.
23. The chief inverter of the foot is:
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Peroneus longus
C. Extensor digitorum longus
D. Peroneus tertius
→ Answer: A.
24. The chief evertor of foot is:
A. Tibialis anterior
B. Tibialis posterior
C. Peroneus longus
D. Flexor hallucis longus
→ Answer: C.
25. The calcaneocuboid joint is:
A. Saddle-type
B. Plane
C. Condylar
D. Hinge
→ Answer: A — functionally plane.
26. The medial longitudinal arch is supported by:
A. Long plantar ligament
B. Short plantar ligament
C. Spring ligament
D. Transverse metatarsal ligament
→ Answer: C.
27. The long plantar ligament forms a tunnel for:
A. Tibialis posterior tendon
B. Peroneus longus tendon
C. Flexor hallucis longus tendon
D. Flexor digitorum longus tendon
→ Answer: B.
28. Flat foot occurs due to:
A. Weak tibialis posterior
B. Tight peroneus longus
C. Paralysis of tibialis anterior
D. Contracture of gastrocnemius
→ Answer: A.
29. Metatarsophalangeal joints are of what type?
A. Hinge
B. Saddle
C. Condyloid
D. Plane
→ Answer: C.
30. Interphalangeal joints are of what type?
A. Condyloid
B. Hinge
C. Plane
D. Saddle
→ Answer: B.
31. Deep transverse metatarsal ligament function:
A. Stabilizes ankle
B. Maintains transverse arch
C. Prevents dorsiflexion
D. Prevents inversion
→ Answer: B.
32. During stance phase, heel strike is followed by:
A. Toe off
B. Foot flat
C. Mid-swing
D. Terminal swing
→ Answer: B.
33. During swing phase, foot is cleared by action of:
A. Peroneus longus
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Tibialis anterior
D. Soleus
→ Answer: C.
34. Locking of the knee is due to:
A. Medial rotation of femur
B. Lateral rotation of femur
C. Flexion of tibia
D. Contraction of biceps femoris
→ Answer: A.
35. Unlocking of the knee is done by:
A. Vastus medialis
B. Sartorius
C. Popliteus
D. Gastrocnemius
→ Answer: C.
36. Trendelenburg gait is due to paralysis of:
A. Gluteus maximus
B. Gluteus medius
C. Tensor fasciae latae
D. Quadriceps
→ Answer: B.
37. Foot drop is due to lesion of:
A. Tibial nerve
B. Superficial peroneal nerve
C. Deep peroneal nerve
D. Obturator nerve
→ Answer: C.
38. High-stepping gait occurs in:
A. Cerebellar ataxia
B. Deep peroneal nerve injury
C. Tabes dorsalis
D. Hemiplegia
→ Answer: C.
39. The stance phase constitutes approximately what percentage of gait cycle?
A. 20%
B. 40%
C. 60%
D. 80%
→ Answer: C.
40. Popliteus is known as:
A. Unlocker of knee
B. Key of knee
C. Locking muscle
D. None
→ Answer: B — “key of the knee joint.”
41. Medial rotation of tibia occurs in:
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Plantar flexion
D. Dorsiflexion
→ Answer: A.
42. Inversion occurs mainly at:
A. Ankle joint
B. Subtalar joint
C. Tibiofibular joint
D. Knee joint
→ Answer: B.
43. The nerve supply to ankle joint includes:
A. Femoral and obturator
B. Deep peroneal and tibial
C. Sciatic and femoral
D. Superficial peroneal only
→ Answer: B.
44. The Q-angle is increased in:
A. Genu valgum
B. Genu varum
C. Club foot
D. Flat foot
→ Answer: A.
45. The knee joint is supplied by:
A. Only femoral nerve
B. Only tibial nerve
C. Genicular branches of several nerves
D. Popliteal artery alone
→ Answer: C.
46. Damage to the medial circumflex femoral artery leads to:
A. Ischemic necrosis of gluteus maximus
B. Avascular necrosis of femoral head
C. Varus deformity
D. Weak hip flexion
→ Answer: B.
47. The artery in ligamentum teres of femur is a branch of:
A. Femoral artery
B. Obturator artery
C. Internal pudendal artery
D. Superior gluteal artery
→ Answer: B.
48. Dorsalis pedis pulse is felt:
A. Behind medial malleolus
B. Lateral to extensor hallucis longus tendon
C. Medial to extensor digitorum longus
D. In sinus tarsi
→ Answer: B.
49. Genu recurvatum means:
A. Hyperflexion at knee
B. Hyperextension at knee
C. Valgus deformity
D. Varus deformity
→ Answer: B.
50. The plantar aponeurosis helps maintain:
A. Lateral arch
B. Medial arch
C. Both longitudinal arches
D. Transverse arch
→ Answer: C.
These 50 MCQs cover all essential anatomical, functional, and clinical facts from the Joints of Lower Limb chapter — ideal for MBBS professional exams, NEET-PG, and viva practice.
1. What type of joint is the hip joint?
→ Synovial ball-and-socket joint.
2. What bones form the hip joint?
→ Head of femur and acetabulum of hip bone.
3. Which structure deepens the acetabulum?
→ Acetabular labrum.
4. Which part of the acetabulum is non-articular?
→ Acetabular notch and fossa.
5. Name the ligaments of the hip joint.
→ Iliofemoral, pubofemoral, ischiofemoral, ligamentum teres, and transverse acetabular ligament.
6. Which is the strongest ligament of the body?
→ Iliofemoral ligament (Y-shaped of Bigelow).
7. Which ligament prevents hyperextension at the hip?
→ Iliofemoral ligament.
8. What is the main blood supply to the femoral head?
→ Medial circumflex femoral artery (retinacular branches).
9. Which nerve supplies the hip joint?
→ Femoral, obturator, superior gluteal, and nerve to quadratus femoris.
10. Why does posterior dislocation of hip occur commonly?
→ Because the posterior capsule is weak and thin.
11. What type of joint is the knee?
→ Condylar (modified hinge) synovial joint.
12. What bones form the knee joint?
→ Femur, tibia, and patella.
13. Which muscle acts as the chief extensor of the knee?
→ Quadriceps femoris.
14. What is the role of patella?
→ Increases leverage of quadriceps and protects the joint.
15. Name the intracapsular structures of the knee joint.
→ Cruciate ligaments and menisci.
16. Which meniscus is commonly torn?
→ Medial meniscus — because it’s fixed to MCL.
17. What is the function of menisci?
→ Deepen articular surface, absorb shock, and stabilize joint.
18. What is “locking” of the knee?
→ Medial rotation of femur on tibia during terminal extension → stability in standing.
19. Which muscle unlocks the knee?
→ Popliteus.
20. What is the blood supply of the knee joint?
→ Genicular anastomosis.
21. What is the “unhappy triad”?
→ Injury to ACL, MCL, and medial meniscus.
22. Which nerve supplies the knee joint?
→ Femoral, tibial, obturator, and common peroneal nerves.
23. What is Housemaid’s knee?
→ Prepatellar bursitis.
24. What is Clergyman’s knee?
→ Subcutaneous infrapatellar bursitis.
25. What type of joint is the ankle?
→ Hinge synovial joint.
26. What bones form the ankle joint?
→ Lower ends of tibia and fibula with talus.
27. What are the movements of the ankle?
→ Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion.
28. Which ligament prevents over-eversion?
→ Deltoid ligament.
29. Which ligament prevents over-inversion?
→ Lateral ligament (esp. anterior talofibular).
30. In which position is the ankle most stable?
→ Dorsiflexion.
31. What is Pott’s fracture?
→ Fracture of both malleoli due to twisting/eversion injury.
32. What type of joint is the superior tibiofibular joint?
→ Plane synovial joint.
33. What type is the inferior tibiofibular joint?
→ Fibrous syndesmosis.
34. What is the main ligament stabilizing the inferior tibiofibular joint?
→ Interosseous tibiofibular ligament.
35. What happens in high ankle sprain?
→ Tear of inferior tibiofibular syndesmosis → widened mortise.
36. Which joint allows inversion and eversion?
→ Subtalar and transverse tarsal joints.
37. What type is the talocalcaneonavicular joint?
→ Modified ball-and-socket.
38. Which ligament supports the head of the talus?
→ Plantar calcaneonavicular (spring) ligament.
39. What type of joint is the calcaneocuboid joint?
→ Saddle-type.
40. What movements occur at the metatarsophalangeal joints?
→ Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction.
41. What type of joint is the interphalangeal joint?
→ Hinge type.
42. What maintains the arches of the foot?
→ Shape of bones, ligaments, and muscles.
43. Which is the highest arch?
→ Medial longitudinal arch.
44. What ligament maintains the medial arch?
→ Spring ligament.
45. Which muscles maintain the medial arch?
→ Tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, abductor hallucis.
46. Which structure maintains the lateral arch?
→ Long and short plantar ligaments, peroneus longus and brevis.
47. Which structure maintains the transverse arch?
→ Peroneus longus tendon and adductor hallucis (transverse head).
48. What is flat foot (pes planus)?
→ Collapse of medial arch due to ligament and muscle weakness.
49. What is pes cavus?
→ Exaggerated longitudinal arch.
50. What is talipes equinovarus?
→ Clubfoot — plantarflexed, inverted, and adducted foot.
51. What is gait?
→ Rhythmic, alternating movement of limbs that moves the body forward.
52. Name two phases of gait cycle.
→ Stance phase and Swing phase.
53. Which phase constitutes 60% of the gait cycle?
→ Stance phase.
54. What causes Trendelenburg gait?
→ Paralysis of gluteus medius/minimus (superior gluteal nerve palsy).
55. What causes foot drop?
→ Paralysis of dorsiflexors (deep peroneal nerve injury).
56. What is waddling gait?
→ Bilateral weakness of hip abductors.
57. What is antalgic gait?
→ Shortened stance on painful limb (seen in arthritis or fracture).
58. What is ataxic gait?
→ Unsteady gait due to cerebellar or sensory pathway lesion.
59. What muscle initiates knee flexion while walking?
→ Popliteus.
60. What is locking of knee?
→ Medial rotation of femur during final extension, stabilizing the joint.
61. What is unlocking of knee?
→ Lateral rotation of femur by popliteus during flexion initiation.
62. What is genu valgum?
→ Knees close together (knock knees).
63. What is genu varum?
→ Knees apart (bow legs).
64. Which condition increases Q-angle?
→ Genu valgum.
65. Which condition decreases Q-angle?
→ Genu varum.
66. What is anterior drawer test?
→ Tests integrity of ACL — tibia moves forward abnormally.
67. What is posterior drawer test?
→ Tests integrity of PCL — tibia moves backward abnormally.
68. Why is medial meniscus more prone to injury?
→ It’s firmly attached to the MCL and capsule, making it less mobile.
69. What is Baker’s cyst?
→ Herniation of synovial membrane into popliteal fossa.
70. What is plantar fasciitis?
→ Inflammation of plantar aponeurosis → heel pain on first step in morning.
71. What is calcaneal spur?
→ Bony outgrowth from calcaneal tuberosity due to chronic traction by plantar fascia.
72. What is the “key of the knee”?
→ Popliteus muscle.
73. Which ligament maintains the talus in place?
→ Spring ligament.
74. Where can the pulse of dorsalis pedis artery be felt?
→ Lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus on dorsum of foot.
75. What law explains joint nerve supply?
→ Hilton’s Law — the nerves supplying the muscles acting on a joint also supply the joint and its overlying skin.
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