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Q1. The first bone to ossify in the human body is:
A. Humerus
B. Clavicle
C. Radius
D. Scapula
→ Answer: B. Clavicle
Q2. The last carpal bone to ossify is:
A. Scaphoid
B. Lunate
C. Pisiform
D. Trapezium
→ Answer: C. Pisiform
Q3. A fracture at the junction of medial 2/3 and lateral 1/3 of clavicle is most common. The medial fragment is displaced upward by:
A. Pectoralis major
B. Sternocleidomastoid
C. Trapezius
D. Deltoid
→ Answer: B. Sternocleidomastoid
Q4. Fracture of surgical neck of humerus commonly injures which nerve?
A. Median
B. Ulnar
C. Axillary
D. Radial
→ Answer: C. Axillary
Q5. Radial nerve palsy (wrist drop) is most commonly associated with fracture of:
A. Medial epicondyle of humerus
B. Midshaft of humerus
C. Lateral epicondyle of humerus
D. Olecranon of ulna
→ Answer: B. Midshaft of humerus
Q6. Supracondylar fracture of humerus in children is dangerous due to injury to:
A. Axillary nerve
B. Brachial artery
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Subclavian artery
→ Answer: B. Brachial artery
Q7. Which carpal bone is most commonly fractured?
A. Lunate
B. Pisiform
C. Scaphoid
D. Capitate
→ Answer: C. Scaphoid
Q8. Which carpal bone is most commonly dislocated?
A. Hamate
B. Scaphoid
C. Lunate
D. Trapezium
→ Answer: C. Lunate
Q9. Colles’ fracture involves:
A. Upper end of radius
B. Midshaft of ulna
C. Lower end of radius
D. Base of 1st metacarpal
→ Answer: C. Lower end of radius
Q10. Dinner fork deformity is characteristic of:
A. Smith’s fracture
B. Monteggia fracture
C. Colles’ fracture
D. Boxer’s fracture
→ Answer: C. Colles’ fracture
Q11. Monteggia fracture-dislocation involves:
A. Fracture of radius with dislocation of ulna
B. Fracture of ulna with dislocation of radius
C. Fracture of both radius and ulna
D. Fracture of 5th metacarpal
→ Answer: B. Fracture of ulna with dislocation of radius
Q12. Boxer’s fracture is:
A. Fracture of scaphoid
B. Fracture of olecranon
C. Fracture of neck of 5th metacarpal
D. Fracture of head of radius
→ Answer: C. Fracture of neck of 5th metacarpal
Q13. Bennett’s fracture involves:
A. Shaft of 5th metacarpal
B. Base of 1st metacarpal
C. Distal phalanx of thumb
D. Middle phalanx of ring finger
→ Answer: B. Base of 1st metacarpal
Q14. Mallet finger is due to injury of:
A. Flexor digitorum profundus tendon
B. Extensor tendon at distal phalanx
C. Adductor pollicis tendon
D. Flexor pollicis longus tendon
→ Answer: B. Extensor tendon at distal phalanx
Q15. Which bone is a constant sesamoid in the upper limb?
A. Pisiform
B. Capitate
C. Hamate
D. Triquetral
→ Answer: A. Pisiform
Q16. Which bone of the upper limb ossifies by both membranous and cartilaginous methods?
A. Scapula
B. Clavicle
C. Radius
D. Humerus
→ Answer: B. Clavicle
Q17. Which tubercle of scapula gives attachment to the long head of triceps?
A. Supraglenoid tubercle
B. Infraglenoid tubercle
C. Coracoid process
D. Spine of scapula
→ Answer: B. Infraglenoid tubercle
Q18. Which part of the humerus is most frequently fractured in elderly?
A. Surgical neck
B. Anatomical neck
C. Lateral epicondyle
D. Head
→ Answer: A. Surgical neck
Q19. The nutrient foramen of humerus is usually directed:
A. Upward and lateral
B. Downward and lateral
C. Upward and medial
D. Downward and medial
→ Answer: D. Downward and medial (“to the elbow I go, from the knee I flee”).
Q20. The radial nerve passes through which groove on the humerus?
A. Intertubercular groove
B. Spiral groove
C. Olecranon fossa
D. Radial fossa
→ Answer: B. Spiral groove
Q21. Which fracture leads to dinner fork deformity?
A. Monteggia fracture
B. Colles’ fracture
C. Smith’s fracture
D. Bennett’s fracture
→ Answer: B. Colles’ fracture
Q22. The head of radius articulates with:
A. Olecranon of ulna
B. Trochlea of humerus
C. Capitulum of humerus
D. Coronoid process of ulna
→ Answer: C. Capitulum of humerus
Q23. Which ossification center of radius appears first after birth?
A. Head
B. Shaft
C. Lower end
D. Olecranon
→ Answer: C. Lower end (2 years)
Q24. Olecranon is a part of which bone?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Humerus
D. Scapula
→ Answer: B. Ulna
Q25. The olecranon fracture is dangerous because of pull of which muscle?
A. Biceps brachii
B. Brachialis
C. Triceps brachii
D. Deltoid
→ Answer: C. Triceps brachii
Q26. Which fracture-dislocation is defined as fracture of ulna with dislocation of radial head?
A. Monteggia
B. Galeazzi
C. Colles’
D. Smith’s
→ Answer: A. Monteggia
Q27. Which bone forms the anatomical snuffbox floor?
A. Lunate
B. Pisiform
C. Scaphoid
D. Capitate
→ Answer: C. Scaphoid
Q28. Which metacarpal has a styloid process?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 5th
→ Answer: C. 3rd
Q29. A fracture at the base of the 1st metacarpal is called:
A. Boxer’s fracture
B. Bennett’s fracture
C. Rolando’s fracture
D. Monteggia fracture
→ Answer: B. Bennett’s fracture
Q30. The distal phalanges ossify:
A. Before proximal phalanges
B. After proximal phalanges
C. At the same time as proximal phalanges
D. Only after puberty
→ Answer: A. Before proximal phalanges
Q31. Which constant sesamoid bone is present in the hand?
A. Pisiform
B. Hamate
C. Trapezoid
D. Lunate
→ Answer: A. Pisiform
Q32. Sesamoid bones are usually found in:
A. Extensor tendons
B. Flexor tendons
C. Interosseous membrane
D. Joint capsules
→ Answer: B. Flexor tendons
Q33. Which bone forms the hook-like projection in the wrist?
A. Trapezoid
B. Trapezium
C. Hamate
D. Lunate
→ Answer: C. Hamate
Q34. Which carpal bone is most commonly associated with median nerve compression when dislocated?
A. Scaphoid
B. Lunate
C. Trapezium
D. Capitate
→ Answer: B. Lunate
Q35. In forensic practice, which bone of the upper limb is most useful for estimating age around 20–22 years?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Clavicle
D. Humerus
→ Answer: C. Clavicle
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